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NEW QUESTION 132
Proper segregation of duties prevents a computer operator (user) from performing security administration duties. True or false?
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Proper segregation of duties prevents a computer operator (user) from performing security administration duties.
NEW QUESTION 133
When participating in a systems-development project, an IS auditor should focus on system controls rather than ensuring that adequate and complete documentation exists for all projects. True or false?
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
When participating in a systems-development project, an IS auditor should also strive to ensure that adequate and complete documentation exists for all projects.
NEW QUESTION 134
When protecting an organization's IT systems, which of the following is normally the next line of defense after the network firewall has been compromised?
- A. Antivirus programs
- B. Personal firewall
- C. Intrusion detection system (IDS)
- D. Virtual local area network (VLAN) configuration
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An intrusion detection system (IDS) would be the next line of defense after the firewall. It would detect anomalies in the network/server activity and try to detect the perpetrator. Antivirus programs, personal firewalls and VIAN configurations would be later in the line of defense.
NEW QUESTION 135
Which of the following is MOST important to include in forensic data collection and preservation procedures?
- A. Preserving data integrity
- B. Determining tools to be used
- C. Maintaining chain of custody
- D. Assuring the physical security of devices
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 136
As a driver of IT governance, transparency of IT's cost, value and risks is primarily achieved through:
- A. resource management.
- B. performance measurement.
- C. value delivery.
- D. strategic alignment.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Performance measurement includes setting and monitoring measurable objectives of what the IT processes need to deliver {process outcome) and how they deliver it (process capability and performance).
Strategic alignment primarily focuses on ensuring linkage of business and IT plans. Value delivery is about executing the value proposition throughout the delivery cycle. Resource management is about the optimal investment in and proper management of critical IT resources. Transparency is primarily achieved through performance measurement as it provides information to the stakeholders on how well the enterprise is performing when compared to objectives.
NEW QUESTION 137
There are many types of audit logs analysis tools available in the market. Which of the following audit logs
analysis tools will look for anomalies in user or system behavior?
- A. Variance detection tool
- B. Heuristic detection tool
- C. Audit Reduction tool
- D. Attack Signature detection tool
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation/Reference:
Trend/Variance Detection tool are used to look for anomalies in user or system behavior. For example, if a
user typically logs in at 9:00 am, but one day suddenly access the system at 4:30 am, this may indicate a
security problem that may need to be investigated.
Other types of audit trail analysis tools should also be known for your CISA exam
The following were incorrect answers:
Audit Reduction tool - They are preprocessor designed to reduce the volume of audit records to facilitate
manual review. Before a security review, these tool can remove many audit records known to have little
security significance.
Attack-signature detection tool - They look for an attack signature, which is a specific sequence of events
indicative of an unauthorized access attempt. A simple example would be repeated failed logon attempts.
Heuristic detection tool - Heuristic analysis is an expert based analysis that determines the susceptibility of
a system towards particular threat/risk using various decision rules or weighing methods. MultiCriteria
analysis (MCA) is one of the means of weighing. This method differs with statistical analysis, which bases
itself on the available data/statistics.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 336
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heuristic_analysis
NEW QUESTION 138
In an EDI process, the device which transmits and receives electronic documents is the:
- A. EDI translator.
- B. EDI interface.
- C. application interface.
- D. communications handler.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A communications handler transmits and receives electronic documents between trading partners
and/or wide area networks (WANs).
Incorrect answers:
B. An EDI translator translates data between the standard format and a trading partner's proprietary format.
C. An application interface moves electronic transactions to, or from, the application system and performs data mapping.
D. An EDI interface manipulates and routes data between the application system and the communications handler.
NEW QUESTION 139
Which of the following is the BEST way to evaluate the effectiveness of access controls to an internal network?
- A. Review router configuration tables
- B. Test compliance with operating procedures
- C. Review access rights.
- D. Perform a system penetration rest
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 140
An employee has accidentally posted confidential data to the company's social media page. Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent this from recurring?
- A. Perform periodic audits of social media updates
- B. Establish two-factor access control for social media accounts
- C. Require all updates to be made by the marketing director
- D. Implement a moderator approval process
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION 141
When storing data archives off-site, what must be done with the data to ensure data completeness?
- A. The data must be synchronized.
- B. The data must be validated.
- C. The data must be parallel-tested.
- D. The data must be normalized.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
When storing data archives off-site, data must be synchronized to ensure data completeness.
NEW QUESTION 142
At the completion of a system development project, a postproject review should include which of the following?
- A. Assessing risks that may lead to downtime after the production release
- B. Identifying lessons learned that may be applicable to future projects
- C. Ensuring that test data are deleted
- D. Verifying the controls in the delivered system are working
Answer: B
Explanation:
A project team has something to learn from each and every project. As risk assessment is a key issue for project management, it is important for the organization to accumulate lessons learned and integrate them into future projects. An assessment ofpotential downtime should be made with the operations group and other specialists before implementing a system. Verifying that controls are working should be covered during the acceptance test phase and possibly, again, in the postimplementation review. Test data should be retained for future regression testing.
NEW QUESTION 143
In order to properly protect against unauthorized disclosure of sensitive data, how should hard disks be sanitized?
- A. The data should be deleted and overwritten with binary 0s.
- B. The data should be deleted.
- C. The data should be low-level formatted.
- D. The data should be demagnetized.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
To properly protect against unauthorized disclosure of sensitive data, hard disks should be demagnetized before disposal or release.
NEW QUESTION 144
An organization performs both full and incremental database backups Which of the following will BEST enable full restoration in the event of the destruction of the data center?
- A. Transmit incremental backups to an offsite location daily.
- B. Maintain full and incremental backups in a secure server room
- C. Rotate all backups to an offsite location daily
- D. Move full backups to an offsite location weekly
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 145
To determine who has been given permission to use a particular system resource, an IS auditor should review:
- A. password lists.
- B. access control lists.
- C. logon ID lists.
- D. activity lists.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Access control lists are the authorization tables that document the users who have been given permission to use a particular system resource and the types of access they have been granted. The other choices would not document who has been given permission to use (access) specific system resources.
NEW QUESTION 146
Who assumes ownership of a systems-development project and the resulting system?
- A. Project steering committee
- B. Systems developers
- C. User management
- D. IT management
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
User management assumes ownership of a systems-development project and the resulting system.
NEW QUESTION 147
Which of the following terms generally refers to small programs designed to take advantage of a software flaw that has been discovered?
- A. patch
- B. malware
- C. service pack
- D. exploit
- E. quick fix
- F. None of the choices.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The term ""exploit"" generally refers to small programs designed to take advantage of a software flaw that has been discovered, either remote or local.
The code from the exploit program is frequently reused in trojan horses and computer viruses. In some cases, a vulnerability can lie in a certain programs processing of a specific file type, such as a non- executable media file.
NEW QUESTION 148
What are trojan horse programs?
- A. A common form of Internet attack
- B. Malicious programs that can run independently and can propagate without the aid of a carrier program such as email
- C. A common form of internal attack
- D. Malicious programs that require the aid of a carrier program such as email
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Trojan horse programs are a common form of Internet attack.
NEW QUESTION 149
An organization has a recovery time objective (RTO) equal to zero and a recovery point objective (RPO) close to 1 minute for a critical system. This implies that the system can tolerate:
- A. both a data loss and a processing interruption longer than 1 minute.
- B. a 1-minute processing interruption but cannot tolerate any data loss.
- C. a processing interruption of 1 minute or more.
- D. a data loss of up to 1 minute, but the processing must be continuous.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The recovery time objective (RTO) measures an organization's tolerance for downtime and the recovery point objective (RPO) measures how much data loss can be accepted. Choices B, C and D are incorrect since they exceed the RTO limits set by the scenario.
NEW QUESTION 150
The IT balanced scorecard is a business governance tool intended to monitor IT performance evaluation indicators other than:
- A. financial results.
- B. innovation capacity.
- C. internal process efficiency.
- D. customer satisfaction.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Financial results have traditionally been the sole overall performance metric. The IT balanced scorecard (BSC) is an IT business governance tool aimed at monitoring IT performance evaluation indicators other than financial results. The IT BSC considers other key success factors, such as customer satisfaction, innovation capacity and processing.
NEW QUESTION 151
Which of the following is the MOST effective means of helping management and the IT strategy committee to monitor IT performance?
- A. Measurement of service levels against metrics
- B. End-user satisfaction surveys
- C. Infrastructure monitoring reports
- D. Gap analysis
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 152
A control that detects transmission errors by appending calculated bits onto the end of each segment of data is known as a:
- A. redundancy check.
- B. parity check.
- C. check digits.
- D. reasonableness check.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A redundancy check detects transmission errors by appending calculated bits onto the end of
each segment of datA .
Incorrect answers:
A. A reasonableness check compares data to predefined reasonability limits or occurrence rates established for the datA .
B. A parity check is a hardware control that detects data errors when data are read from one computer to another, from memory or during transmission.
D. Check digits detect transposition and transcription errors.
NEW QUESTION 153
During an IS audit, auditor has observed that authentication and authorization steps are split into two functions and there is a possibility to force the authorization step to be completed before the authentication step. Which of the following technique an attacker could user to force authorization step before authentication?
- A. Masquerading
- B. Traffic analysis
- C. Eavesdropping
- D. Race Condition
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
A race condition is when processes carry out their tasks on a shared resource in an incorrect order. A race condition is possible when two or more processes use a shared resource, as in data within a variable. It is important that the processes carry out their functionality in the correct sequence. If process 2 carried out its task on the data before process 1, the result will be much different than if process1 carried out its tasks on the data before process 2.
In software, when the authentication and authorization steps are split into two functions, there is a possibility an attacker could use a race condition to force the authorization step to be completed before the authentication step. This would be a flaw in the software that the attacker has figured out how to exploit. A race condition occurs when two or more processes use the same resource and the sequences of steps within the software can be carried out in an improper order, something that can drastically affect the output.
So, an attacker can force the authorization step to take place before the authentication step and gain unauthorized access to a resource.
The following answers are incorrect:
Eavesdropping - is the act of secretly listening to the private conversation of others without their consent, as defined by Black's Law Dictionary. This is commonly thought to be unethical and there is an old adage that "eavesdroppers seldom hear anything good of themselves...eavesdroppers always try to listen to matters that concern them."
Traffic analysis - is the process of intercepting and examining messages in order to deduce information from patterns in communication. It can be performed even when the messages are encrypted and cannot be decrypted. In general, the greater the number of messages observed, or even intercepted and stored, the more can be inferred from the traffic. Traffic analysis can be performed in the context of military intelligence, counter-intelligence, or pattern-of-life analysis, and is a concern in computer security.
Masquerading - A masquerade attack is an attack that uses a fake identity, such as a network identity, to gain unauthorized access to personal computer information through legitimate access identification. If an authorization process is not fully protected, it can become extremely vulnerable to a masquerade attack.
Masquerade attacks can be perpetrated using stolen passwords and logons, by locating gaps in programs, or by finding a way around the authentication process. The attack can be triggered either by someone within the organization or by an outsider if the organization is connected to a public network. The amount of access masquerade attackers get depends on the level of authorization they've managed to attain. As such, masquerade attackers can have a full smorgasbord of cyber crime opportunities if they've gained the highest access authority to a business organization. Personal attacks, although less common, can also be harmful.
Following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 324
Official ISC2 guide to CISSP CBK 3rd Edition Page number 66
CISSP All-In-One Exam guide 6th Edition Page Number 161
NEW QUESTION 154
An organization provides information to its supply chain partners and customers through
an extranet infrastructure. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing the firewall security architecture?
- A. Firewall policies are updated on the basis of changing requirements.
- B. A Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) has been implemented for user authentication and remote administration of the firewall.
- C. The firewall is placed on top of the commercial operating system with all installation options.
- D. inbound traffic is blocked unless the traffic type and connections have been specifically permitted.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The greatest concern when implementing firewalls on top of commercial operating systems is the potential presence of vulnerabilities that could undermine the security posture of the firewall platform itself. In most circumstances, when commercial firewalls are breached that breach is facilitated by vulnerabilities in the underlying operating system. Keeping all installation options available on the system further increases the risks of vulnerabilities and exploits. Using SSL for firewall administration (choice A) is important, because changes in user and supply chain partners' roles and profiles will be dynamic. Therefore, it is appropriate to maintain the firewall policies daily (choice B), and prudent to block all inbound traffic unless permitted (choice C).
NEW QUESTION 155
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