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PRMIA Operational Risk Manager (ORM) Sample Questions:

1. Under thebasic indicator approach to determining operational risk capital, operational risk capital is equal to:

A) 15% of the average gross income (considering only the positive years) of the past three years
B) 15% of the average net income (considering only thepositive years) of the past three years
C) 25% of the average gross income (considering only the positive years) of the past three years
D) 15% of the average gross income of the past five years

2. Which of the following is not an approach proposed by the Basel II framework to compute operational riskcapital?

A) Advanced measurement approach
B) Factor based approach
C) Basic indicator approach
D) Standardized approach

3. Which of the following statements are true:
I. Pre-settlement risk is the risk that one of the parties to a contract might default prior to the maturity date or expiry of the contract.
II. Pre-settlement risk can be partly mitigated by providing for early settlement in the agreements between the counterparties.
III. The current exposure from an OTC derivatives contract is equivalent to its current replacement value.
IV. Loan equivalent exposures are calculated even for exposures that are not loans as a practical matter for calculating credit risk exposure.

A) I, II, III and IV
B) II and IV
C) II and III
D) III and IV

4. A Bank Holding Company (BHC) is invested in an investment bank and a retail bank. The BHC defaults for certain if either the investment bank or the retail bank defaults. However, the BHC can also default on its own without either the investment bank or the retail bank defaulting. The investment bank and the retail bank's defaults are independent of each other, with a probability of default of 0.05 each. The BHC's probability of default is 0.11.
What is the probabilityof default of both the BHC and the investment bank? What is the probability of the BHC's default provided both the investment bank and the retail bank survive?

A) 0.0475 and 0.10
B) 0.05 and 0.0125
C) 0.08 and 0.0475
D) 0.11 and 0

5. Which of the following formulae describes CVA (Credit Valuation Adjustment)? All acronyms have their usual meanings (LGD=Loss Given Default, ENE=Expected Negative Exposure, EE=Expected Exposure, PD=Probability of Default, EPE=Expected Positive Exposure, PFE=Potential Future Exposure)

A) LGD * PFE * PD
B) LGD * EE * PD
C) LGD * EPE * PD
D) LGD * ENE * PD

Solutions: